Re: Meaning of Aryan: now, "white people"?

Here I must say, the eveidence for Indo-Aryan words in Uralic is
ample and not nearly all of them have a complete Finno-Ugric
distribution. Many are limited to the western half of the Finno-
Permic area.

Also the earlier Indo-Iranian stage has left many words in western
Finno-Permic. For the purpose of the Indian urheimat hypothesis the
existance of these lexical borrowings should be equally unconvenient.

Jouppe

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "mkelkar2003" <swatimkelkar@...>
wrote:

>
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "fournet.arnaud" <fournet.arnaud@>
> wrote:
> >
> >
> > At any rate, I believe I have shown enough possible ways to
> > reasonably reconcile the lexical exchange between the eastern IE
> > languages and Uralic with an Indian Urheimat scenario (Elst

2000)."

> >
> > M. Kelkar
> > ==========
> >
> > It does not account for Mordvin vrgas being a Sanscrit word
> > not an iranian word.
> >
> > We are not dealing with PIE / Uralic lexical exchanges.
> > But specific languages to specific languages.
> > This is why your approach is basically flawed.
> >
> > Arnaud
>
>
> Could be an "Amazing coincidence" like Mordvin pey and Nahali pey
>
> <http://members.aol.com/yahyam/coincidence.html>
>
> M. Kelkar
>
>
>
> >
> > ==========
> > >
> >
>