Re: [tied] som?

Perhaps you are right, Sir.

Perhaps our people were so excessively polite that the demonstrative was really the indefinite, "one".

Regards,

John

tgpedersen <tgpedersen@...> wrote:

I know of course that the demonstrative *so was an uninflected particle. Because if it weren't, then back in the good old days where PIE didn't have so many cases, it would have had an accusative *som. Hm! I wonder if it's outside the limits of the possible that PIE *som "the same" has changed its semantics from "that one" (acc.), eg as a consequence of its use in reflexive statements? Then, poor *so, after having had its accusative hijacked for other purposes would have had no other option but to enter in a suppletive paradigm with *to- ('som' (*sm.- ?) is used as a relative pronoun, esp in the acc., in Danish) Torsten

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