som?

From: tgpedersen
Message: 33592
Date: 2004-07-23

I know of course that the demonstrative *so was an uninflected
particle. Because if it weren't, then back in the good old days
where PIE didn't have so many cases, it would have had an accusative
*som.

Hm!

I wonder if it's outside the limits of the possible that PIE
*som "the same" has changed its semantics from "that one" (acc.), eg
as a consequence of its use in reflexive statements?

Then, poor *so, after having had its accusative hijacked for other
purposes would have had no other option but to enter in a suppletive
paradigm with *to-


('som' (*sm.- ?) is used as a relative pronoun, esp in the acc., in
Danish)

Torsten