Re: [tied] som?

>
> tgpedersen <tgpedersen@...> wrote:
>
> I know of course that the demonstrative *so was an uninflected
> particle. Because if it weren't, then back in the good old days
> where PIE didn't have so many cases, it would have had an

accusative

> *som.
>
> Hm!
>
> I wonder if it's outside the limits of the possible that PIE
> *som "the same" has changed its semantics from "that one" (acc.),

eg

> as a consequence of its use in reflexive statements?
>
> Then, poor *so, after having had its accusative hijacked for other
> purposes would have had no other option but to enter in a

suppletive

> paradigm with *to-
>
>
> ('som' (*sm.- ?) is used as a relative pronoun, esp in the acc.,

in

> Danish)
>
> Torsten
>
>

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Bromios King <bromiosking@...>
wrote:

> Perhaps you are right, Sir.
>
> Perhaps our people were so excessively polite that the

demonstrative was really the indefinite, "one".

>
> Regards,
> John
>
>

Perhaps I smell a whiff of sarcasm? Demonstratives are devalued all
the time, 'The' used to be a demonstrative.

Torsten