Re: Indo-Aryans outside of India

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Francesco Brighenti" <frabrig@...>
wrote:

> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, george knysh <gknysh@> wrote:
>
> > B[abaev]'s Temarunda analysis seems OK.
>
> On the contrary, to me its seems far-fetched:
>
> http://indoeuro.bizland.com/archive/article17.html
> "*tem-arun-da, 'mother of the Dark, or Black, Sea', where *tem-
> means Vedic tamas- 'darkness', *arun- is Vedic arna- 'a stormy sea',
> and *da- fits well to Sanskrit dhe- 'to breast-feed'. This makes
> temarunda really 'a mother of the sea'.
>
> However, Babev's source is O. Trubachev's article "Temarundam 'Mater
> Maris'" available online at
>
> http://groznijat.tripod.com/sci_lang/trubachev.htm

The etymology as given can't be right. If the meaning was 'dark
sea' then Temar-unda- : tamisra-, udna-; if originally 'mother of the
sea' then mater-unda-*: ma:tar-, udna- with metathesis. However, if
'mother of the dark sea' then mater-temar-unda-* with double haplology.

The linguistic ev. wouldn't point to a specifically Indo-Iranian
source, with retained e not e>a, retained l, the a in temar-, etc.
This doesn't mean the cultural or ethnic connection between the two
groups didn't exist, but it can't be shown to be close by means of
linguistic comparison.