[tied] Re: Active / Stative

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Miguel Carrasquer <mcv@...> wrote:

> You can compare this with the Romance compound perfect,
> which was originally made with <habere> for transitive verbs
> (Fr. j'ai lu), <esse> for intransitive verbs (Fr. je suis
> venu). In Spanish, the transitive form has been generalized
> (he leído, he venido).

Meaning that, if Spanish has generalized the auxiliary of transitive
verbs, pre-PIE may have generalized an object marker? Is this
supposed to constitute a typological parallel? What do you say to
the objection that the Romance auxiliary expresses a tense which is
something all verbs have, while a generalized object must have been
alien to many of the verbs used in the perfect, so that this is not
really all that parallel?

Jens