From: Miguel Carrasquer
Message: 33720
Date: 2004-08-07
>--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Miguel Carrasquer <mcv@...> wrote:I would say I do not understand the objection.
>
>> You can compare this with the Romance compound perfect,
>> which was originally made with <habere> for transitive verbs
>> (Fr. j'ai lu), <esse> for intransitive verbs (Fr. je suis
>> venu). In Spanish, the transitive form has been generalized
>> (he leído, he venido).
>
>Meaning that, if Spanish has generalized the auxiliary of transitive
>verbs, pre-PIE may have generalized an object marker? Is this
>supposed to constitute a typological parallel? What do you say to
>the objection that the Romance auxiliary expresses a tense which is
>something all verbs have, while a generalized object must have been
>alien to many of the verbs used in the perfect, so that this is not
>really all that parallel?