Re: [tied] Ah, look at all the lonely languages

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "m_iacomi" <m_iacomi@...> wrote:

> In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Gerry" wrote:
>
> >>>>> When has Latin ever had "native" speakers?
> >>>>
> >>>> Before turning into (Proto-)Romance languages.
> >>>
> >>> Wasn't that "after" the Romance languages turned into PIE?
> >>
> >> I didn't intended my phrase as a joke.
> >
> > Neither did I intend to go for the laugh. should I have inquired
> > whether it happened "before"? This must be an inside joke. I

don't

> > get it.
>
> OK, lemme rephrase it: before the spoken language of Romance
> regions could no longer been caled Latin (extended "moment" from
> which one can speak about Proto-Romance), it was still Latin.

Probably a very extended moment! Couldn't one argue that Latin was
spoken in Charlemagne's time until the Carolingian Renaissance forced
the clerks to admit that the language they wrote was not Latin?

Can't one argue that speakers of 'Ladin' still speak Latin? After
all, we could say that the Anglo-Saxons spoke English, but Old
English and Modern English are mutually incomprehensible.

Richard.