Re: PIE *ghe(n)d

From: tolgs001
Message: 21921
Date: 2003-05-15

>look, I begun with PIE *ghe(n)d. the phonetical evolution is absolut
>OK in Rom. For marking the way of the hungarians you have to
>search out where they could loan this word. In the indo-iranians
>languages, in the slavic or how ever. If you got the answer, show
it.
>The advantage of my argumentation is that the word is a PIE
>word, has PIE cognates, is to find in Rom. and Albanian and most
>of all, the phonetical evolution is absolutely in concordance with
>Rom. Lang.

Awright, but *ghe(n)d would fit 100 times better to Hungarian
phonology (at least the modern and recent one - say, the last
500 years or so), e.g. as *gend; or as *gönd. I don't know why
would PIE *ghe(n)d turn Hung. gond (perhaps there was a reason
in old pre-Arpadian and Arpadian hungarian for e > o, I dunno).

Whilst for Rum. gând the way from *ghe(n)d seem to be longer
(and it is quite a... stand-alone thing: no derivations actually;
look in the neighboring yard: the Hungarian list is quite long,
even if their gond is also a loanword).

>As for your "botã" I will like you to keep informed that the
>semanstims of this word is not only the one of "bâtã"
>(and how you say, the one of hungarian bot?) but this
>means, with a slavic word "doniTã".

I don't care. I guess we'd first take into consideration only
those connotations that are shared. For, there's a further
example that I wouldn't consider: masc. "bât", fem. "bâtã",
as synonyms for "mo$, moa$ã" (old man & woman). These
won't have anything in common with the string bot-botã-bâtã
either, right?

>The word has an unknown etymology and it seems it is a
>derivative like "botca". When you find the language wherefrom
>the hungarians got it we reopen the topic. Einverstanded?

I won't reopen anything - we're anyway missing a good
Hung. dict. for etymology.

>P.S. do not forget how many valahians have been on the
>throne of Hungary and how many valahians have made a
>big part of their nobily begining with ... Olahu. The influence
>on hungarian should be easy explained.

No, quite the opposite is true: those Romanians who acceded
such positions in the Hungarian society did it pretty late, in
the 15th century, and as such they were already being
assimilated. As far as loan vocabulary is concerned, in previous
centuriesHungarians borrowed heavily from Slavic idioms, from
German & al. Romanians in those centuries were in no *social,
cultural* positions adequate enough in order to prompt
Hungarians to borrow vocabulary that they had lacked or had
been not contented with; yet the other way around, galore,
and not only in Transylvania, but also in the outer regions
(in which there also exists Magyarisms that are not used or
that are unknown to Romanians living in Transylvania side by
side with Hungarians; e.g. hoga$, puhav and borviz. :-).

George