Re: [tied] Re: Was proto-romance a pidgin?

Piotr Gasiorowski wrote:

> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "alex_lycos" <altamix@...> wrote:
>
>> The concept is not believable even for the change of a language
> completely. Why whould one speak home a language which he use just in
> the administration and army of the Empire?
>
> Why is Arabic spoken throughout North Africa? Why do they speak
> English in the Republic of Ireland? What did so many native
> communities in Latin America adopt the language of the conquistadors?
> Why are so many people in the former Soviet republics more fluent in
> Russian than in their national languages? Any ideas? ;-))
>
> Piotr

Common Piotr, you are just kidding now, aren't you?

First of all not all the North Africa speak Arabic.
The widespread of Arabic language there where it is is mostly trough the
early adoption of the islamic religion and since the Arabic is the
language of the Coran, every good muslem must know that language.

As for second comparation with South America and Soviet Union I guess is
not really serious that you ask it. If you try to compare the way of
widespreading a language nowaday trough state and schools, massmedia,
and the citadine life comparative with the time of the years 200 AC it
can be just a simple joke, don't you find?