Re: [tied] Re: bake

>Greek 'pho:gein', Lat 'fo:veo' (< perf. fo:vi), German bu:k. It seems
>the o-grade is long.

Sorry, the /o/ is short in Latin. Long only in the perfect. The perfect is
probably *fov-vi > fo:vi.
This means it is a standard causative (o grade + -ye- suffix) as in moneo
and others. The only question is the medial /v/ in Latin. This is usually
taken from *gWH (e.g. Sihler section 46.2, foveo < *dHogWH; Meiser section
74,10 foveo < *dHogWH-eye causative to PIE *dHegWH "to burn").

This would make Latin foveo cognate to II dahati, and not to Greek pho:gein.

>If the verb stem is *bH&g- < *bHh1g-, how does
>it ablaut?

*bH&g, *bHeh1g > *bhe:g, *bHoh1g > *bHo:g

>But how do you explain OHG 'bacchan', 'bahhan' >
>NHG 'backen', 'bachen' and 'Bäcker' "baker" then? Low German
>influence?

Since we have the OHG form well attested, with the usual High German shift
from /k/ to /x/, a reversion to /k/ can have nothing to do with teh PIE
situation

Peter