From: Miguel Carrasquer
Message: 19152
Date: 2003-02-24
>Miguel:So why "The Semitic borrowings must necessarily have been introduced
>>The terminus post quem is more difficult to assess. Do only
>>Neolithic peples have use for a word for "six"? I have no hard
>>evidence for that.
>
>Why wouldn't they? I'm pretty sure that mesolithic people could
>have terms for "six" and even required it in their daily life
>where trade is concerned, of which we know there was plenty.
>It's kinda hard to trade without a "six" at your disposal and
>you don't have to be neolithic to trade.
>Concerning the allophonic affricate *[ts]:No. The affricate allophone in *dhghom- is post-PIE, and I wasn't
>>On the other hand, subphonemic allophones can remain stable for
>>thousands of years.
>
>With a word like *dHgHo:m, the affricate allophone could only
>have formed once the cluster *dHgH- had formed. I've already
>dated the loss of unaccented schwa to the point of transition
>between Mid IE and Late IE (5000 BCE). This is the event that
>caused the clusters in the first place. Wouldn't this be
>your "terminus ante quem"?
>Me:Huh? That fact was all I mentioned (the non-cluster is subject to
>>Why can't Tocharian /tk-/ come from an affricatized *dHgH-?
>
>Miguel:
>>Tocharian A has tkam. < *dhg^hó:m and cka:car < *dhugh&2té:r,
>
>Problem: *dHgHom- and *dHugHxter- are different in that the
>former contains an initial consonant cluster and the latter does
>not. You neglected to plug that fact into your Occam's Razor
>machine.
>There must be something that shows what the affricate would*tt -> *tst gives /st/ in Tocharian.
>have become in Tocharian. You mean to say that there is no
>attestation whatsoever of *sedtos, *edti, *tkei- and the like
>in Tocharian?