From: Peter T. Daniels
Message: 953
Date: 2003-01-10
>Since those are far from irrefutable arguments, you are under no
> --- In qalam@yahoogroups.com, "Peter T. Daniels" <grammatim@...>
> wrote:
> > nicky wrote:
> > >
> > > Haarmann claims it's influenced by the Greek
> > > alphabet. Is that view accepted by other
> > > scholars?
> >
> > Does he offer irrefutable arguments? If so, then what does it
> matter if
> > other scholars agree?
>
> well, he writes that since people have found
> a Greek alphabet in the vicinity of the Meroitic
> alphabet and since the Meroitic alphabet has vowels
> it must have been influenced by Greek. But I think
> it's a bit Eurocentric of him, to say the least...