nicky wrote:

>
> --- In qalam@yahoogroups.com, "Peter T. Daniels" <grammatim@...>
> wrote:
> > nicky wrote:
> > >
> > > Haarmann claims it's influenced by the Greek
> > > alphabet. Is that view accepted by other
> > > scholars?
> >
> > Does he offer irrefutable arguments? If so, then what does it
> matter if
> > other scholars agree?
>
> well, he writes that since people have found
> a Greek alphabet in the vicinity of the Meroitic
> alphabet and since the Meroitic alphabet has vowels
> it must have been influenced by Greek. But I think
> it's a bit Eurocentric of him, to say the least...

Since those are far from irrefutable arguments, you are under no
obligation to believe him. But this is far from the strangest thing he
has to say about barely readable scripts.
--
Peter T. Daniels grammatim@...