--- In qalam@yahoogroups.com, "Peter T. Daniels" <grammatim@...>
> nicky wrote:
> >
> > Haarmann claims it's influenced by the Greek
> > alphabet. Is that view accepted by other
> > scholars?
> Does he offer irrefutable arguments? If so, then what does it
matter if
> other scholars agree?

well, he writes that since people have found
a Greek alphabet in the vicinity of the Meroitic
alphabet and since the Meroitic alphabet has vowels
it must have been influenced by Greek. But I think
it's a bit Eurocentric of him, to say the least...