From: John Kelly
Message: 7163
Date: 2005-04-12
>I don't understand why "atthi" is still singular, when puttaa isI have noticed too that "atthi" is often used in the sense "there are"
>clearly nominative plural (i.e. the subject of the verb atthi). I
>think it must be idiomatic ...
--- In Pali@yahoogroups.com, "Ven. Yuttadhammo" <buffer@...> wrote:
> > 13. "Puttaa m'atthi* dhana.m m'atthi - Iti baalo vihaññati.
> > sons / have I / wealth / have I / thus / fool / perishes
> > Sons have I, wealth have I; thus the fool perishes.
> >
> > * me-atthi: lit. to me have.
>
> Dear Yong Peng,
>
> I don't think that "me-atthi" lit. means "to me have", but rather "of
> me there is". Again, this is the case of where Pali differs from
> English. In English we say "I have sons." In Pali they say "There
> are sons of me." (here "there is sons of me"). I don't understand why
> "atthi" is still singular, when puttaa is clearly nominative plural
> (i.e. the subject of the verb atthi). I think it must be idiomatic, I
> suppose to fit with the meter. The strictly correct grammar should, I
> think, be:
>
> puttaa me santi, dhana.m m'atthi.
>
> Another note, that this verse is taken from the Dhammapada v. 62.
>
> kata~n~nutaaya,
>
> Yuttadhammo