>It seems to me that the divition between set I and II reflects some
>old grammatical function and structure from a much earlier time.
>Does anyone have a notion about what this structure/function could
>be. Is this divition to be found in other branches of the nostratic
>tree?

I have already mentioned that the different endings were once used for a
different function. I think that initially the endings would have looked
like
the following and would have been used to distinguish transitive and
intransitive verbs. The following is my concept of ProtoSteppe (c.9000 BCE):

Transitive
----------
1s *-im
2s *-it
3s *-i


Intransitive
------------
1s *-ux
2s *-un
3s *-u


By this point, there was already a difference of vowel between the sets of
endings. I believe this was the seed for later *e/*o ablaut, caused by
vowel harmony in an early stage of IndoTyrrhenian (the parent to IE and
Tyrrhenian, spoken 7000 BCE).

So, now, to make a long story short, there was a transfer of function in
steps
that might have been something like:

*m-set *x-set
--------------------------------
1. transitive intransitive
2. objective subjective
3. active stative
4. durative, aorist perfect

Don't forget that the picture is further complicated by the fact that the
aorist has the same endings as the durative (the *m-set). So, I think it's
clear that the aorist and the durative must have once been the same aspect.

As for the ULTIMATE origin, I think that Nostratic had two different sets
of pronouns, one for the absolutive and one for the ergative.


- love gLeN


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