> As for the ULTIMATE origin, I think that Nostratic had two
different sets
> of pronouns, one for the absolutive and one for the ergative.
> - love gLeN
> Thanks Glen.

In the afro-asiatic branch (semittic/hamittic) there is also a
dichotomy of a simular kind- a suffixe conjugation and a prefix

The function of these two conjugations differs from branch to branch,
but at an early time seems to have been an opposition between:

imperfective action (prefix) and perfective (suffixe)

Is there any evidence that the semitic dichotomy also originates from
the ergative and absolutive set of pronouns?

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