Miguel:

>We can tell because (1) *-bhios is plural, not singular (2) *-bhios is
>dative/ablative, not genitive, (3) *-bhios is
>never added to o-stems, as in Toch. B. -epi (*-o-bho + -eis),
>(4) *-bhios is a case marker, not an adjectival suffix.

We can tell that you're talking through your teeth because:
(1) plural suffixes can be transferred to the singular
(especially if reanalysed as *-bhio- + -s [nom.sg.])
(2) a dative/ablative CAN indeed be used to convey
the genitive even if it is not a genitive proper
(note Altaic languages)
(3) things change
(4) genitives make perfect adjectival suffixes

In all, this is futile because you barely have ONE language to
prove the inane assertion that "adjectival suffixes often become
genitives". Apparently, they don't happen often enough for you
to provide _clear_ examples.

>>It's cute how you try to conceal important details with
>>parentheses. Please stop writing "(a)" for all these roots.
>
>All the forms I gave are attested in the injunctive.

So... you're asserting that these Sanskrit injunctive forms
are directly inheirited from correlating *e-less IE forms. If not,
then the injunctive is irrelevant to this discussion and /a-/
remains.

>>My point is that there could never be such a form as **bhr-�m.
>
>Utter nonsense. Have you really never heard of the injunctive?
>Have you never heard of the Skt. Class VI thematic presents
>tud-�-ti "he thrusts", pr.n-�-ti "he fills", etc. (with the root
>in zero grade throughout, just as in the thematic root aorist
>and the thematic s-aorist)?

Have you never heard of the term "syllable"? Let's go over this
simple problem: /tud-/ is syllabic (/u/ is a vowel) and /pr.n-/
is syllabic (/r./ is a vowel) but *bhr- is not syllabic in
**bhr-�m because *r is a CONSONANT. Please read the definition
of "syllable" in your dictionary and see what it says.

You may as well know these basic terms if you insist on pretending
to be knowledgeable.


- love gLeN




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