eyjarnar is feminine accusative plural (eyjar + suffixed article (i)nar = eyjarnar; that’s why í is used.

If you have access to Zoega´s dictionary, you can see the example, leggja e-t á e-n, to impose, lay (a burden, tax) upon one cited under leggja, and it also lists the example, leggja fæð, öfund, hátr á, to take a dislike, envy, hatred to which seems to me just a particular instance of the first example, so it would seem that both the direct object and indirect object are in the accusative. It´s just the way it is with leggja J

Zoega´s dictionary lists the precise example you mention under mót, see (4) in prepositional and adverbial phrases: halda til móts við e-n, to march against one, so I would translate your example ‘They are accustomed to march against the men of authority’

Kveðja

Alan

-----Original Message-----
From: norse_course@yahoogroups.com [mailto:norse_course@yahoogroups.com] On Behalf Of nikolai_sandbeck
Sent: Saturday, 15 August 2009 9:06 PM
To: norse_course@yahoogroups.com
Subject: [norse_course] Help please

 

Well I am almost done with the part about nouns in "A new introduction to Old Norse"

but there is something i dont get

Jarl kom út í eyjarnar

why is it in genitive, and why is í used instead of til?
if eyja have to be in genetive?

Þórsteinn lagði fœð á Austmannininn. Ok fór hann á brott um summarit, ok er hann nú ór sögunn

I am not sure of why Austmaðr have to be in accusative.

Þeir eru vanir at halda til móts við höfðingjana

and I am not sure of what this sentence acually means, and why höfðingi have to be in accusative :b

I know it is a bit much. but thanks =)