--- In norse_course@yahoogroups.com, "AThompson" <athompso@...> wrote:
>
> eyjarnar is feminine accusative plural (eyjar + suffixed article (i)nar
> = eyjarnar; that's why í is used.
>
> If you have access to Zoega´s dictionary, you can see the example,
> leggja e-t á e-n, to impose, lay (a burden, tax) upon one cited under
> leggja, and it also lists the example, leggja fæð, öfund, hátr á, to
> take a dislike, envy, hatred to which seems to me just a particular
> instance of the first example, so it would seem that both the direct
> object and indirect object are in the accusative. It´s just the way it
> is with leggja :-)
>
> Zoega´s dictionary lists the precise example you mention under mót, see
> (4) in prepositional and adverbial phrases: halda til móts við e-n, to
> march against one, so I would translate your example `They are
> accustomed to march against the men of authority'
>
> Kveðja
> Alan
>
> -----Original Message-----
> From: norse_course@yahoogroups.com
> [mailto:norse_course@yahoogroups.com] On Behalf Of nikolai_sandbeck
> Sent: Saturday, 15 August 2009 9:06 PM
> To: norse_course@yahoogroups.com
> Subject: [norse_course] Help please
>
>
> Well I am almost done with the part about nouns in "A
> new introduction to Old Norse"
>
> but there is something i dont get
>
> Jarl kom út í eyjarnar
>
> why is it in genitive, and why is í used instead of til?
> if eyja have to be in genetive?
>
> Þórsteinn lagði fð á Austmannininn. Ok fór hann á brott
> um summarit, ok er hann nú ór sögunn
>
> I am not sure of why Austmaðr have to be in accusative.
>
> Þeir eru vanir at halda til móts við höfðingjana
>
> and I am not sure of what this sentence acually means,
> and why höfðingi have to be in accusative :b
>
> I know it is a bit much. but thanks =)
>