Re: Tudrus

At 5:44:58 PM on Monday, January 17, 2011, Torsten wrote:

> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Brian M. Scott"
> <bm.brian@...> wrote:

>> At 1:02:25 PM on Monday, January 17, 2011, Torsten wrote:

>> [...]

>>> Remember that Bastarnian = Hoch-/Mitteldeutsch

>> We can't remember what hasn't been demonstrated (and is
>> on temporal grounds absurd anyway).

> Rephrase: Remember that in my proposal Bastarnian =
> Hoch-/Mitteldeutsch (which should be obvious from the
> context).

And the response becomes: There's no point wasting time on
the rest of the proposal until you provide some real
evidence for this absurd identification.

[...]

>>> You won't get off that easy. Why is the Polish Szlachta
>>> using German(?) terminology?

>> Oh, for Pete's sake! Read some medieval Central European
>> history. You might as well ask why English 'unnecessarily'
>> adopted so may French words in the 13th and 14th centuries.

> I think it was because after the invasion in 1066 the
> English nobility spoke Norman French,

For a while. There is good evidence that by the middle of
the 13th century most of them (save amongst the highest
nobility) were not acquiring it naturally, but rather had to
be taught it as a second language. And this is certainly
the case by the 14th century, which saw a great influx of
French words. And these words, as well as most of those
that first appear in the 13th century, are (when a
difference can be detected) Central French, not Norman
French.

Brian