From: Torsten
Message: 67116
Date: 2011-01-17
>Rephrase: Remember that in my proposal Bastarnian = Hoch-/Mitteldeutsch
> At 1:02:25 PM on Monday, January 17, 2011, Torsten wrote:
>
> [...]
>
> > Remember that Bastarnian = Hoch-/Mitteldeutsch
>
> We can't remember what hasn't been demonstrated (and is on
> temporal grounds absurd anyway).
>Ok. Thanks.
> [...]
>
> >>>And why
> >>>http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Folwark ?
> >>>What did Germans have to do with that?
>
> >> You see the explanation given in the article (Vorwerk).
>
> > Is that word used in that sense in German?
>
> Read <http://de.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vorwerk> and the entry in
> DWB (Grimm).
> >> And the same structure & tradition spread in HungaryI think it was because after the invasion in 1066 the English nobility spoke Norman French, because that's what people spoke where they came from. So you're saying the Szlachta was an invading elite from the German lands? You're not confusing it with the Teutonic knights? Perhaps you should consider reading up on medieval Central European history yourself?
> >> as well (the Hungarian notion of "tanya" is a perfect
> >> rendering of medieval Vorwerk/folwark. Hungary was
> >> during the medieval centuries and later on under the
> >> same Slavic-German influence and customary inter-
> >> changes).
>
> > You won't get off that easy. Why is the Polish Szlachta
> > using German(?) terminology?
>
> Oh, for Pete's sake! Read some medieval Central European
> history. You might as well ask why English 'unnecessarily'
> adopted so may French words in the 13th and 14th centuries.
>