From: shivkhokra
Message: 66686
Date: 2010-10-04
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "shivkhokra" <shivkhokra@> wrote:I am saying that if dyaus is mentioned for the first time on the planet earth in 2000 BC in Rg Veda and then 800 years later in 1200 B.C he is mentioned again as Zeus with similar functions on Linear B tablets in Crete, many thousand miles away, why is it necessary to assume that Greeks and Rg Vedic people had a common ancestor? Does'nt Occam's razor apply?
> >
> >
> > I have a simple question for the list.
> > Earliest reference to dyauspitra is in rg ved.
> > Earliest reference to zeus is in Linear B tablets.
> > Why would an etymology of dyaus be looked for outside of rg vedic corpus?
> >
> > Shivraj
> >
> ****** Because corpora are not the places where etymologies are looked for. The presence of very similar phrases are found in Greek and Latin is usually taken to mean that a people ("Proto-IndoEuropeans") speaking a language ancestral to Sanskrit, Greek and Latin had a Father Sky God.
> If you want to argue that the Greeks and Romans learned about Him from the Rgved, go right ahead.
>
> Dan Milton
>