From: Rick McCallister
Message: 61334
Date: 2008-11-03
> From: Richard Wordingham <richard.wordingham@...>There are some mentions of the Frisians being run out of Jutland by the Danes. I think even Beowulf (or notes in it) mentions that. But I think this particular event was after the ASJ went into Britain. But could it have been possible that Angle or Jute was just another name for Northern Frisian?
> Subject: [tied] How come Anglo-Frisian? (was: Re: Scandinavia and the Germanic tribes such...)
> To: cybalist@yahoogroups.com
> Date: Monday, November 3, 2008, 4:57 PM
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Rick McCallister
> <gabaroo6958@...> wrote:
> > --- On Sun, 11/2/08, Richard Wordingham
> <richard.wordingham@...> wrote:
> > > Or the Anglo-Saxons were Frisians who had been
> under Angle,
> > > Saxon or
> > > Jutish rule!
>
> > Do we have anything to back up either view. Ever since
> my karma ran
> over my dogma, I've been more flexible
>
> The latter view is taken from Myres' contribution to
> the Oxford
> History of England, 'Roman Britain and the English
> Settlements'. (I
> only recall 'Roman Britain' in the title.) The
> argument was that
> Angle, Saxon and Jutish (or some subset thereof) jewelry
> made its way
> into Frisian coastal settlements prior to the conquest of
> England,
> indicating that Frisians were being politically absorbed
> into these
> three nations. However, Anglo-Saxon is more closely
> related to
> Frisian than to Old Saxon.
>
> Other mechanisms can be proposed for the strong Frisian
> component to
> Anglo-Saxon.
>
> Richard.