From: Brian M. Scott
Message: 60031
Date: 2008-09-14
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Brian M. Scott"Not at all. Arnaud wrote that Watkins 'confidently
> <BMScott@...> wrote:
>>>> By the 3rd edition he no longer does so: he traces it
>>>> back only to OE <cild>. The same goes for the 4th
>>>> edition, which is available online at
>>>> <http://bartleby.com/61/>. (The entry for <child> may
>>>> be seen at
>>>> <http://www.bartleby.com/61/13/C0291300.html>.)
>>> Doesn't necessarily mean that OE <cild> is unrelated to
>>> Goth <kilthei> and <inkiltho:>;
>> Of course it doesn't. It says nothing at all about that
>> relationship. It does mean that Watkins was no longer
>> willing to trace <cild> back to a PIE root, however.
> I thought your original point was that <cild> is peculiar
> to English only, and unrelated to Gothic <qilthei> (i.e.
> <kilthei>),
> both of which are untrue according to the Oxford EnglishNot to mention rather better sources, e.g., Roger Lass in
> Dictionary and Webster's New World Collegiate Dictionary.
>>> I see no reason to retract the posited kinship toThe latter, and that the omission has nothing to do with
>>> these Gothic words; perhaps it was just for economy.
>> Not at all likely, since it's also not in his Dictionary
>> of Indo-European Roots.
> Are you saying that the English word <cild> is in his
> Dictionary of Indo-European Roots, but its kinship to
> Gothic <kilthei> and <inkiltho:> and Scandinavian <kulder
> etc.> is not? Or do you mean that English <cild> not in
> his Dictionary of IE Roots?
> That would not necessarily mean that the word is unique toIt wasn't.
> English (as I thought your original point was),