Re: Scientist's etymology vs. scientific etymology

At 5:38:54 AM on Friday, June 6, 2008, tgpedersen wrote:

> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Brian M. Scott"
> <BMScott@...> wrote:

>> At 7:39:10 PM on Thursday, June 5, 2008, tgpedersen
>> wrote:

>>> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Brian M. Scott"
>>> <BMScott@> wrote:

>>>> The spelling of Latin <butyrum> with <y> is a very good
>>>> indication that it came from Greek.

>>> Not quite, cf the Latin spelling lacryma.

>> This makes no sense, unless you incorrectly imagine that 'a
>> very good indication' is synonymous with 'ironclad proof'.
>> (Though I shouldn't mind knowing how early the medieval
>> spelling with <y> actually occurs.)

> The spelling with <y> is an indication that whoever
> spelled the word thought it came from Greek, like you do.

Depends on when: in the high Middle Ages i/y variation is
normal, at least in the scribal traditions with which I'm
most familiar.

Brian