From: Rick McCallister
Message: 54240
Date: 2008-02-27
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Piotr Gasiorowski____________________________________________________________________________________
> <gpiotr@...> wrote:
>
> > Common origin requires formal homology (the
> historical identity of
> > "substance", not function). If one language forms
> periphrastic verb
> > forms using forms of *kWer- or *h1es-, another
> using *dHeh1-, and still
> > another one using *kap-, this indicated convergent
> but independent
> > development, not common origin.
>
> What about the example of Portuguese _ter_ but
> French _avoir_ to form
> the perfect tenses? Do not these forms have a
> common origin?
>
> (I am not at all sure about the relationship of the
> English _be_ and
> _get_ passives.)
>
> Richard.
>
>
>