Re: PIE -*C-presents

> >I think that is actually to be read as: "It's the most economical
> >explanation because there is no trace in IE of an inherited
> >"passive" category", since you provide no other reason why that
> >assumption is the most economical. Please object if you think
> >otherwise.

Miguel

>
> I didn't think spelling out the reason was necessary.
> Torsten

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The absence of passive is not so clear.

In the Traité de grammaire comparée
des langues classiques
Meillet points at a number of
words with tomos structure
They are usually active in GReek
when a verb is attested
But a great number are passive
with no verb in Greek.

I've come to think
this scheme tomo is originally
passive and coherent
with Semitic maktub formation
tomo is *tom-H3
and H3 here is m?

Arnaud

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