From: Piotr Gasiorowski
Message: 53954
Date: 2008-02-22
> Yes. What I have trouble with is seeing this as the resultI'd prefer a solution which would also account for the distribution of
> of a phonetic development (soundlaw). The thematic vowel is
> /e/ before unvoiced (including final) and /o/ before voiced,
> independent of the stress. We have o-stems stressed on the
> root as well as on the thematic vowel, both in the nominal
> and verbal systems (*bhóros, *bhorós; *bhére-, tudé-). If
> the thematic vowel is e/o when unstressed (as in *bhór-o-s,
> *bhér-e-ti), what room is there for unstressed -i-? There is
> only the possibility that unstressed thematic vowels which
> appear as e/o were originally stressed, and had vr.ddhi of
> the root vowel (which caused the accent to shift back): a
> form like *bhér-e- would then come from original **bha:r-á-.
> I believe that is indeed the explanation for barytone
> e-grade thematic forms. But if we apply this rule
> consistently, it seems as if the whole basis for unstressed
> thematic vowels falls away: at that pre-stage of PIE, the
> definition of the thematic vowel would have included
> carrying the stress.