Sure they do. I've seen explanations of Italian -ai <
-as
that roughly give
-as
-ah
-ay
Think of French chanterais
Although this raises the question of why -as of nouns
and adjectives is -as > -e, unless you're postulating
that it's actually Latin -ae > -e
I've seen both arguments.
In forms of Spanish that drop final -s (not merely
replace it with /h/), there tends to be a different
vowel quality/quantity between the plural and the
singular. It's not always consistent. Sometimes the
plural final vowel is lengthened, sometimes somewhat
glottalized. There's definitely somthing going on
because I don't have any problem understanding Cubans
et al. when they speak of la uva vs. las uvas
--- "fournet.arnaud" <
fournet.arnaud@...>
wrote:
. , ,
>
> Why ???
>
> The *fetishist* morphological theory
> is not even capable of explaining
> why
> Italian Verb-i P2 "thou"
> is from Latin Verb-s-
>
> Cantas > cantai !!
> F*n B*S*t
>
> Arnaud
> ====================
>
>
>
>
>
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