Re: Re[2]: [tied] PIE *a -- a preliminary checklist

Compared to (most forms of) Spanish, I definitely hear
a glottal stop with words beginning with vowels.
People often run them together in colloquial speech.
But even in colloquial speech I almost always hear a
glottal stop between a word ending in a vowel and a
following word beginning with a vowel.
Except for Salvadoran Spanish, where <Santa Ana> is
/santa?ana/ instead of normal /santaana/ I never hear
that in Spanish.


--- "Brian M. Scott" <BMScott@...> wrote:

> At 10:52:53 PM on Wednesday, February 13, 2008,
> fournet.arnaud wrote:
>
> >> That's interesting to hear --a few years back
> when I
> >> asked whether or not Gmc glottal stop was a relic
> of
> >> laryngeals, everyone told me no English, of
> course, still
> >> has glottal stops e.g. an apple /?aen ?aepL/
>
> > I think the difference is glottal stop was a
> phoneme in
> > proto-Germanic
>
> Evidence?
>
> > in English, the presence of a little glottalic
> attack at
> > the beginning of the word is automatic.
>
> Everyday observation shows that it isn't.
>
> > Now do you think bu?er for butter is part of the
> language?
> > If yes, then it's phonemic in English too.
>
> Is it? Or is it just an allophone of /t/?
>
> Brian
>
>
>

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