From: Brian M. Scott
Message: 53031
Date: 2008-02-14
> --- "Brian M. Scott" <BMScott@...> wrote:Because the German glottal stop is predictable.
>> At 6:41:07 PM on Wednesday, February 13, 2008, Richard
>> Wordingham wrote:
>>> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Rick McCallister
>>> <gabaroo6958@...> wrote:
>>>> If so, was there a stage when Gmc had laryngeals?
>>> Will a single one do? German has merged initial
>>> laryngeals to a glottal stop, [...]
>> What is the evidence that the German glottal stop before
>> word-initial vowels has anything at all to do with IE
>> laryngeals? It seems on the face of it both unlikely and
>> virtually impossible to demonstrate even if true.
> I'd like to see both sides of this argument Why do you say
> unlikely and impossible to demonstrate?