Re: Re[2]: [tied] PIE *a -- a preliminary checklist

I'd like to see both sides of this argument
Why do you say unlikely and impossible to demonstrate?
What peaks my curiosity is why words with glottal stop
in Scandinavian were borrowed into pre-Finnish with
/k/
Did Germanic glottal stop come from something else? Or
is it normal for glottal stop to be perceived as /k/
by people whose language lacks glottal stop?
Some French speakers insert /h/ for glottal stop when
speaking English --but I'm guessing this may be
because Gmc. derived /h/ became glottal stop in French


--- "Brian M. Scott" <BMScott@...> wrote:

> At 6:41:07 PM on Wednesday, February 13, 2008,
> Richard
> Wordingham wrote:
>
> > --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Rick McCallister
> > <gabaroo6958@...> wrote:
>
> >> If so, was there a stage when Gmc had laryngeals?
>
> > Will a single one do? German has merged initial
> laryngeals
> > to a glottal stop,
>
> What is the evidence that the German glottal stop
> before
> word-initial vowels has anything at all to do with
> IE
> laryngeals? It seems on the face of it both
> unlikely and
> virtually impossible to demonstrate even if true.
>
> > as had Old English.
>
> Brian
>
>
>

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