From: Piotr Gasiorowski
Message: 51278
Date: 2008-01-15
> A question on Brugmann's Law. It is widely known that sometimes there isI agree it's untenable.
> no Brugmann's Law in Sanskrit when we would expect it and this has to be
> explained in various reasons.
> Mayrhofer's solution is that Brugmann operates only in front of *m/n/l/r
> but I find that impossible since we have forms like acc. pá:dam, nom. pl.
> pá:das, nom. pl. gá:vas etc.
> However, that gave me a new of the top of the head idea (probably not new,The possibility has been mentioned...
> it's probable that it's old and that I've never seen it) - maybe Brugmann
> operates only in front of voiced consonants? This would explain rasá: ~
> Slavic rosa (no need for the laryngeal), pátis (but this is easily analogy
> to *poty-), ápas ~ Latin opus (but this could be due to *h3e-, and not
> real *o-) and, most convincingly to me: katarás ~ Greek póteros, Slavic
> kotorU, Lith. katra`s etc.
> Now, I cannot think of an example with unvoiced consonant and Brugmann'sPossible counterexamples are perfects of CVC roots such as 3sg. tatá:pa
> Law? Any examples? I haven't really looked seriously for examples, one
> obvious candidate is nápa:t which indeed has -a:- as from Brugmann in all
> the right places (nápa:tam etc.) but according to Macdonell there is no
> *napat- attested in Vedic so one cannot see the oposition short-long.