From: Brian M. Scott
Message: 50740
Date: 2007-12-07
> Great !
> Which fricativized stop do you suggest ?
> Arnaud
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: Rick McCallister
> To: cybalist@yahoogroups.com
> Sent: Thursday, December 06, 2007 8:55 PM
> Subject: Re: [SPAM]Re: [SPAM][tied] comohota
> Languages also borrow alphabets better suited to other
> languages and have to sort out how to make them fit
> their phonologies. I agree that the <h> is not
> meaningless but it may just be a marker for a long
> vowel, a hiatus, a different sort of vowel quality
> --i.e. a "helping letter". English, Catalan, German,
> Basque et al. all have this phenomenon. On the other
> hand, it may be the relic of a fricativized stop, or
> just an /h/
> --- "fournet.arnaud" <fournet.arnaud@...>
> wrote:
> > Modern languages like English or French
> > have traditions : that is to say a lot of useless
> > letters
> > inherited from previous languages
> > or previous habits about how to write previous
> > languages.
> > Hence de-b-t, et caetera....
> >
> > I suppose Umbrian had nothing like that,
> > 2 000 years ago.
> > they started from nil and from a white page.
> >
> > So why is it they wrote como-h-ota ?
> > It should be mo(:)ta. Somebody wrote it two days
> > ago.
> > this leads to two questions :
> > 1. why is it they wrote mota as mo-h-o-ta ?
> > 2. why is it they chose -h- to display morphemic (?)
> > cut ?
> > What does all this mean ??
> > Neither Greek nor Latin can be a "model" to create
> > such a -h-.
> >
> > You are selling the "just-forget-it" explanation.
> > I cannot buy this "explanation" :
> > it just does not sound as a possible explanation at
> > all.
> >
> > I am expecting something that looks like a real
> > explanation.
> >
> > What is a "spelling marker" ?
> > and what does it originate in ?
> >
> > Arnaud
> >
> >
> >
> > ----- Original Message -----
> > From: P&G
> > To: cybalist@yahoogroups.com
> > Sent: Wednesday, December 05, 2007 9:48 AM
> > Subject: Re: [SPAM]Re: [SPAM][tied] comohota
> >
> >
> >
> > Why should we consider it a real phoneme? Any
> > more than the written h in English "she" or "chair"?
> > Or the b in "debt"? Why can't it just be a
> > spelling marker either of length or of hiatus?
> >
> > Peter
> >
> > ----- Original Message -----
> > From: fournet.arnaud
> > To: cybalist@yahoogroups.com
> > Sent: Tuesday, December 04, 2007 6:48 PM
> > Subject: [SPAM]Re: [SPAM][tied] comohota
> >
> >
> >
> > If this -h- were to be considered as a "real"
> > phoneme,
> > what would it be ? *gh, *g, *gw ?
> >
> > Arnaud
> >
> >
> > ----- Original Message -----
> > From: P&G
> > To: cybalist@yahoogroups.com
> > Sent: Tuesday, December 04, 2007 10:02 AM
> > Subject: Re: [SPAM][tied] comohota
> >
> >
> > >I have a question about
> > >Umbrian comohota = Latin offerta
> > >This word is supposed to be from root *meu
> > >Latin mov-ere and Lituanian mauti.
> > >What does this -h- in como-h-ota stand for ?
> >
> > The process in Umbrian should be:
> > *move-to > *mov-to > *mouto > mo:to
> > with regular syncope, then regular change of
> > -ou- to -o:-.
> >
> > Umbrian spelling is, as one writer puts it,
> > "as diverse as possible.
> > Various spellings of the same sound are used,
> > sometimes wholly
> > promiscuously." The sound /h/ was very weak,
> > if not absent, in Umbrian, and
> > is commonly used as a sign of hiatus. This is
> > in line with Rick
> > McCallister's suggestion. The trouble is, this
> > word should have no hiatus,
> > merely a single long vowel.
> >
> > Perhaps we can guess it is merely an aberrant
> > spelling.
> >
> > Peter
> >
> >
> >
> >
> >
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