Re: Wanak

Just to make it clear, the Celtic root is usually reconstructed as
*aneg-. This is the only way to account for the reflexes, e.g. Gaul.
anextlo- (*aneg-tlo-), OIr. anaig, aingid 'protects' (< *aneg-e-t(-
i)), anacul 'protection'.

I haven't seen anything really convincing concerning the etymology
of this Celtic *aneg-. Maybe a petrified form of the nasal-present
*ph2-ne-g-, cf. Lat. pango, pa:x, etc., though the semantics aren't
perfect and Celtic otherwise generalizes the zero-grade -n- in nasal-
presents.

Anyway, a connection with Greek (w)anak- seems impossible.

Anders

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "stevelong333" <stevelong333@...>
wrote:

>
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "stevelong333"
> <stevelong333@> wrote:
> <<The Greek is from wanak-, so no.>>
> <<I'm afraid I don't understand. If there is indeed a

Celtic "anax",

> to protect, then why would the Gr Wanak- make a difference? If I
> understand the question, it is whether there may be a
> connection, which would include at mininum the possibility of a
> loan word.>>
>
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "tgpedersen" tgpedersen@>
> wrote:
>
> <<If you read it that way, then yes. I should be the last one to

dis

> a loanword proposal, but this one involves only two language
> groups and a phonetic change (loss of w-) which I am not aware
> of in other groups of loanwords.>>
>
> The loss of the w- could have occurred before the borrowing
> happened. Ionian-speaking Phocaeans were at Massilia
> (Marseilles) about 600 BC and in northern Spain. Influence was
> felt all the way to Heuneburg. I don't know about the

distribution

> or otherwise proposed source of the Celtic words, but the Greek
> contact was there. That is at least one way the word could have
> traveled. Lots of loanwords only involve two languages.
>
> Regards,
> Steve Long
>