--- In
cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "stevelong333"
<stevelong333@> wrote:
<<The Greek is from wanak-, so no.>>
<<I'm afraid I don't understand. If there is indeed a Celtic "anax",
to protect, then why would the Gr Wanak- make a difference? If I
understand the question, it is whether there may be a
connection, which would include at mininum the possibility of a
loan word.>>
--- In
cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "tgpedersen" tgpedersen@...>
wrote:
<<If you read it that way, then yes. I should be the last one to dis
a loanword proposal, but this one involves only two language
groups and a phonetic change (loss of w-) which I am not aware
of in other groups of loanwords.>>
The loss of the w- could have occurred before the borrowing
happened. Ionian-speaking Phocaeans were at Massilia
(Marseilles) about 600 BC and in northern Spain. Influence was
felt all the way to Heuneburg. I don't know about the distribution
or otherwise proposed source of the Celtic words, but the Greek
contact was there. That is at least one way the word could have
traveled. Lots of loanwords only involve two languages.
Regards,
Steve Long