From: mcarrasquer
Message: 47003
Date: 2007-01-17
>For what it's worth, my explanation is: different underlying vowels.
>And how regular is this velar colouring of *e to *a? Why, for
>example, do we not see it in *legh- "lie" (Slavic *lez^-)?
>Or *sek- "cut" (Slavic *sekyra or similar "scythe"or similar)?