Re: [tied] Daimo:n 'Divider' <-> Bog 'Divider' too?

On 2007-01-17 19:27, Andrew Jarrette wrote:

> Isn't Greek <phagein> "to eat" also supposed to be derived from this
> root? The semantic progression is perhaps
> "divide">"share">"partake">"eat". If so, where does Greek <a> come
> from? Is it a case of the velar colouring *e to *a?

That's what I think. *//bHeg-// realised as *bHag- in the simple
thematic present (*bHág-e/o-).

> Or was there an *h2 before the *e?

I find the reconstruction *bHh2ag- ugly. It could be defended if there
were IIr. evidence for *bH&2g-, but the only thing I can think of is the
desiderative <bHíks.ate> etc., which is probably a dereduplicated
formation (from older *bHí-bHg-h1s-e/o-).

> And how regular is this velar colouring of *e to
> *a? Why, for example, do we not see it in *legh- "lie" (Slavic *lez^-)?
> Or *sek- "cut" (Slavic *sekyra or similar "scythe"or similar)?

Well, not all sound change ends up regular in the Neogrammarian fashion.
We wouldn't get far in historical linguistics if we didn't _begin_
comparative work assuming such regularity, but once we have established
the regular correspondences withn certainty we may perhaps indulge in
some less strict methodology as an afterdinner treat.

Piotr