From: alexandru_mg3
Message: 47007
Date: 2007-01-17
>phonological
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Andrew Jarrette <anjarrette@> wrote:
> >
> >And how regular is this velar colouring of *e to *a? Why, for
> >example, do we not see it in *legh- "lie" (Slavic *lez^-)?
> >Or *sek- "cut" (Slavic *sekyra or similar "scythe"or similar)?
>
> For what it's worth, my explanation is: different underlying vowels.
>
> The vowel /e/, being --almost-- the only vowel in the PIE
> inventory, is almost certainly derived from a merger of differentWhy such a drastical reduction (all vowels > a single one)? Not to
> vowels in pre-PIE.
>