Re: [tied] Another PIE origin theory

The thing is, Aramaic was a very, very widely-spoken language; it
covered practically all the Middle East at one point. I'm not sure
if something similar happened to Akkadian or Assyrian. It seems also
likely that those words could have travelled. Even the Etruscans
could have picked it up - there is a possibility that some Etruscans
were included in the "Sea Peoples" who invaded Egypt.

That switching of consonants in Proto-Celtic *tarwos > *tauros (and
the well-compared Italic Mawort ~ Marut) reminds ME (though it's
likely unrelated) of the PIE *-tk- < Post-PIE *-kÞ-. If the sounds
were run together, such a change could occur.
Of course, this would have to follow a rule that works everywhere,
or almost everywhere, and with the almost, with explanations - but
that goes without saying.

Ned Smith: That's another possibility that is very nice. Pretty much
what I have in mind is that PIE come from two languages. HOWEVER,
there must have been some degree of understanding between them, or
some force to cause a merger (but not a total takeover) of the
languages. This would likely need to take a good deal of time.

I have another idea to add to the mix: Look at the English
phrase "Yours truly". It originally was just a letter-closing
message meaning "I am yours in truth". Now, it's occasionally used
to mean "me" or "I". Now, what if some kind of greeting or parting
message back in (Very-)Early-Proto-Indo-European was reanalized as
the common form for "I", i.e. *eg^o:h2 / *h2eg^Hom ?

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Joao S. Lopes" <josimo70@...>
wrote:

>
> How to explain the Celtic metathesis? *tarwos <
> *tauros. Is it usual?
> It remembers me Mars(<Mavort-)~ Marut, and
> quatuor~quartus
>
> --- Petr Hrubis <hrubisp@...> escreveu:
>
> > cf. also Etruscan /Tevru/
> >
> > ----- Original Message ----
> > From: Joao S. Lopes <josimo70@...>
> > To: cybalist@yahoogroups.com
> > Sent: Monday, 18 September, 2006 10:42:12 PM
> > Subject: Re: [tied] Another PIE origin theory
> >
> >
> > This influence of Semitic in IE is still hard to
> > understand, although usually well accepted. What
> > branch of Semitic?
> >
> > One of the putative loanwords would be PIE
> > *(s)tauros
> > (*tH2euros) ~ Semitic Taur.
> > Western Semitic shows and Akkadian s^ < T, Aramaic
> > and
> > Arabic shows T (th). So, *T>t could come from some
> > Proto=Aramaic-like langauge?
> >
> > Joao SL
> >
> > --- "C. Darwin Goranson" <cdog_squirrel@...>
> > escreveu:
> >
> > > This may all be for the rubbish bin, but since I'm
> > > not the best
> > > judge of this, I'll share the idea.
> > >
> > > Thousands of years, maybe 2 thousand or 3, before
> > > PIE as we know it
> > > existed, its ancestor lived in eastern Anatolia.
> > > This ancestor may
> > > also have been the ancestor of Minoan (judging by
> > > what can be
> > > deduced from the grammar of Linear A) and of
> > > Etruscan, as well as
> > > Pelasgian if it is not Indo-European. There is a
> > > chance that it was
> > > also related distantly to Kartvelian, however this
> > > might just be due
> > > to borrowings between the two in a Sprachbunde.
> > >
> > > Then, the Semites arrived. They were around long
> > > enough that a few
> > > Semitic words got into this language, but the
> > > speakers of the
> > > language soon went seperate ways. The Minoans and
> > > Etruscans went
> > > east (and the Pelasgians?) while another group
> > went
> > > north over the
> > > Caucasus mountains.
> > >
> > > After this, the group that went north met with and
> > > joined part of an
> > > Uralic culture. After this, everything goes as
> > usual
> > > with the Kugan
> > > ideas.
> > >
> > > Myself, I can't say I'm completely comfortable
> > with
> > > the idea.
> > > However, I don't want my emotions to have too much
> > > of a basis in
> > > judging it. What do you think?
> > >
> > > I prefer to think of PIE as closer to Uralic...
> > just
> > > with an
> > > adstratum from some pseudo-Caucasian tongue. It's
> > > just that there
> > > are some discomforting similarities to some
> > Semitic
> > > traditions.
> > >
> > > The only other thought I can give with ease is
> > that
> > > some of the stuf
> > > we ascribe to PIE is actually not Indo-European,
> > but
> > > just widely
> > > diffused borrowings. Speaking of which, how can
> > one
> > > tell those apart?
> > >
> > >
> > >
> > >
> > >
> >
> >
> >
> >
> >
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