From: Petr Hrubis
Message: 46111
Date: 2006-09-19
> This may all be for the rubbish bin, but since I'm_______________________________________________________
> not the best
> judge of this, I'll share the idea.
>
> Thousands of years, maybe 2 thousand or 3, before
> PIE as we know it
> existed, its ancestor lived in eastern Anatolia.
> This ancestor may
> also have been the ancestor of Minoan (judging by
> what can be
> deduced from the grammar of Linear A) and of
> Etruscan, as well as
> Pelasgian if it is not Indo-European. There is a
> chance that it was
> also related distantly to Kartvelian, however this
> might just be due
> to borrowings between the two in a Sprachbunde.
>
> Then, the Semites arrived. They were around long
> enough that a few
> Semitic words got into this language, but the
> speakers of the
> language soon went seperate ways. The Minoans and
> Etruscans went
> east (and the Pelasgians?) while another group went
> north over the
> Caucasus mountains.
>
> After this, the group that went north met with and
> joined part of an
> Uralic culture. After this, everything goes as usual
> with the Kugan
> ideas.
>
> Myself, I can't say I'm completely comfortable with
> the idea.
> However, I don't want my emotions to have too much
> of a basis in
> judging it. What do you think?
>
> I prefer to think of PIE as closer to Uralic... just
> with an
> adstratum from some pseudo-Caucasian tongue. It's
> just that there
> are some discomforting similarities to some Semitic
> traditions.
>
> The only other thought I can give with ease is that
> some of the stuf
> we ascribe to PIE is actually not Indo-European, but
> just widely
> diffused borrowings. Speaking of which, how can one
> tell those apart?
>
>
>
>
>