From: tgpedersen
Message: 45564
Date: 2006-07-27
>It occurred to me that perhaps one could use this analysis
>
> > > This might be the way to explain the correspondence between
> > > Danish stød and Swedish tone 1 (rising tone). What do you
> > > think?
> >
> > Your description is right, I speak that way myself. The
> > second part may have a falsetto tone. Maybe the stød was
> > once just subphonemic, being merely an exaggeration helped
> > on its way by a creaky voice.
> > Creaky voice is very common in Southern Sweden.
> >
>
> The reason I asked was that most descriptions I see of it,
> the authors are puzzled why Danish stød should correspond
> to Swedish tone 1, since it's more phonologically similar
> (the authors think) to tone 2 (falling-rising). I thought
> my above observation might account for the correspondence
> between stød and tone 1.
> What do you think?