From: aquila_grande
Message: 45568
Date: 2006-07-28
--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "tgpedersen" <tgpedersen@...> wrote:
>
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "tgpedersen" <tgpedersen@> wrote:
> >
> >
> > > > This might be the way to explain the correspondence between
> > > > Danish stød and Swedish tone 1 (rising tone). What do you
> > > > think?
> > >
> > > Your description is right, I speak that way myself. The
> > > second part may have a falsetto tone. Maybe the stød was
> > > once just subphonemic, being merely an exaggeration helped
> > > on its way by a creaky voice.
> > > Creaky voice is very common in Southern Sweden.
> > >
> >
> > The reason I asked was that most descriptions I see of it,
> > the authors are puzzled why Danish stød should correspond
> > to Swedish tone 1, since it's more phonologically similar
> > (the authors think) to tone 2 (falling-rising). I thought
> > my above observation might account for the correspondence
> > between stød and tone 1.
> > What do you think?
>
>
> It occurred to me that perhaps one could use this analysis
> in the general case:
> a long vowel consists of two morae with level tone,
> when rising, the first one is low, the second high,
> when falling, the first one is high, the second low.
>
> Does anyone analyse that way now?
>
>
> Torsten
>