Re: Dream and rève

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Brian M. Scott" <BMScott@...>
wrote:

>
> At 2:29:35 AM on Wednesday, May 17, 2006, Anthony Appleyard
> wrote:
>
> > --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "squilluncus" <grvs@>
> > wrote:
>
> >> It's rêve avec circonflexe, which suggests derivation
> >> from 'resve'. Etymology seems to be an enigma: ...
>
> > French circumflex formerly meant "long vowel". Sometimes
> > that long vowel came from vowel + [s], but not always:
> > e,g, [a^ge] = "age" came via Old French [eage] from Latin
> > [aetaticum]].
>

Spelling "resve" attested 1718. But that might be adapting the long
pronunciation of e to the spelling conventions at the time.

Still it is intriguing with a word without any certain etymology.
And that not only in French. Germanic dream is also unclear. And the
same goes for Greek onar which might have a relative in Armenian. Is
that correct?
Practical, rational Romans with no inclination towards schamanism
whatsoever have perspicuous somnium: "what belongs to sleep".
What kind of word do Celts use? And Basques? Perspicuous or unclear?

Lars