[tied] Re: Proto Vedic Continuity Theory of Bharatiya (Indian) Lang

>
> ****GK: No. The argument is rather this: because the
> Indo-Aryans are indeed in India, and because they
> indubitably arrived there from "outside" as indicated
> by genetic research, and because their connection to
> the other IE languages indicates an earlier
> "Indo-Iranian" phase in the steppes of Eurasia,
> deduced from a combination of archaeological,
> linguistic, and historical arguments, then the absence
> of conclusive archaeological proofs for the arrival
> and settlement in India is more than likely due to
> their nomadic way of life, on the analogy of the
> Pechenegs of the Ukrainian steppes. Were it not for
> the other indicators, the nomadic hypothesis would
> indeed be questionable. But in context, it is quite
> plausible. ****
>

Let me try to be the Devil's advocate here:

PIEers live in somewhere in India, several groups emigrate from
there to the northwest, Asian groups arrive in the PIEers land,
PIEers mix with them.

If this scenario is wrong, it should be provably wrong. How?


Torsten