Re: [tied] Re: Proto Vedic Continuity Theory of Bharatiya (Indian)

--- tgpedersen <tgpedersen@...> wrote:

> >
> > GK: No. The argument is rather this: because
> the
> > Indo-Aryans are indeed in India, and because they
> > indubitably arrived there from "outside" as
> indicated
> > by genetic research, and because their connection
> to
> > the other IE languages indicates an earlier
> > "Indo-Iranian" phase in the steppes of Eurasia,
> > deduced from a combination of archaeological,
> > linguistic, and historical arguments, then the
> absence
> > of conclusive archaeological proofs for the
> arrival
> > and settlement in India is more than likely due to
> > their nomadic way of life, on the analogy of the
> > Pechenegs of the Ukrainian steppes. Were it not
> for
> > the other indicators, the nomadic hypothesis would
> > indeed be questionable. But in context, it is
> quite
> > plausible.
> >
>
> Let me try to be the Devil's advocate here:
>
> PIEers live in somewhere in India,

****GK: When?***

several groups

> emigrate from
> there to the northwest,

****GK: When? Where?****

Asian groups arrive in the

> PIEers land,

****GK: Whence? And the PIE land was uninhabited prior
to their initial arrival?****

> PIEers mix with them.
>
> If this scenario is wrong, it should be provably
> wrong. How?

****GK: Add the other specifics first.****

>
>
> Torsten
>
>
>
>
>
>

__________________________________
Yahoo! Mail - PC Magazine Editors' Choice 2005
http://mail.yahoo.com