Re: [tied] Re: Gypsies again

On Sun, 02 Oct 2005 15:02:17 -0500, Patrick Ryan
<proto-language@...> wrote:

>----- Original Message -----
>From: "Miguel Carrasquer" <mcv@...>
>To: <cybalist@yahoogroups.com>
>Sent: Sunday, October 02, 2005 2:04 PM
>Subject: Re: [tied] Re: Gypsies again
>
>
>> On Sun, 02 Oct 2005 08:27:40 -0500, Patrick Ryan
>> <proto-language@...> wrote:
>>
>> >Now there certainly is a variation in Indo-Iranian between <a> and <Ø>,
>> >and
>> >we can justifiably call that Ablaut.
>> >
>> >And we certainly have <a:> as well as <a>.
>> >
>> >But why do you not show me an *o-grade in the perfect singular, for
>> >openers?
>>
>> 3sg. caká:ra. The /a:/ must come from /o/.
>>
>> =======================
>> Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
>> mcv@...
>
>***
>Patrick:
>
>And why is that?
>
>Old Indian <a:> can come from PIE *e:, *a:, or *o: according to the current
>theory.

And *o in an open syllable (Brugmann's law).

>What disproves that Old Indian simply used vRddhi where non-Old Indian used
>/o/?

The paradigm goes:

cakára
cakártha
caká:ra
cakr.má
etc.

Notice that the singular has */o/:

*k(W)e-k(W)ór-h2a => cakára
*k(W)e-k(W)ór-th2a => cakártha
*k(W)e-k(W)ór-e => caká:ra

No other vowel will produce an /a:/ in the 3sg. only.

=======================
Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
mcv@...