Re: [tied] Re: Gypsies again

----- Original Message -----
From: "Miguel Carrasquer" <mcv@...>
To: <cybalist@yahoogroups.com>
Sent: Sunday, October 02, 2005 2:04 PM
Subject: Re: [tied] Re: Gypsies again


> On Sun, 02 Oct 2005 08:27:40 -0500, Patrick Ryan
> <proto-language@...> wrote:
>
> >Now there certainly is a variation in Indo-Iranian between <a> and <Ø>,
> >and
> >we can justifiably call that Ablaut.
> >
> >And we certainly have <a:> as well as <a>.
> >
> >But why do you not show me an *o-grade in the perfect singular, for
> >openers?
>
> 3sg. caká:ra. The /a:/ must come from /o/.
>
> =======================
> Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
> mcv@...

***
Patrick:

And why is that?

Old Indian <a:> can come from PIE *e:, *a:, or *o: according to the current
theory.

What disproves that Old Indian simply used vRddhi where non-Old Indian used
/o/?

***