--- In
cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Patrick Ryan" <proto-language@...>
wrote:
>
> The uvula is not at all involved in the production of back- or
> post-velar consonants.
>
> Why name it then?
I just went to the mirror and pronounced what I've always
called a "uvular fricative" and my uvula was clearly bent
forward, laying in a slight depression at the back of the
tongue, and clearly part of the obstruction creating the
necessary turbulence for a fricative.
Why, when recognized phoneticists use 'uvular' and 'post-
velar' synonymously, do you have such a problem with that
usage?
David